whykikyouwhy wrote...
A "human" right would imply that the right existed before arms existed. Perhaps therein was the crux of the question. Not so much what was written into any specific law, of any specific country, but the human application.IanPolaris wrote...
Herr Uhl wrote...
I'd call people who are openly hostile against anyone other than a member of their people jerks
And on a sidenote, since when is the right to bear arms a basic human right?
Since the right to defend yourself has been a basic human right (see Hobbes). As an American, the Right to Bear Arms is the right to defend myself against others (including the state) and that's a pretty damned basic human right.
-Polaris
I agree, and I would argue that the Right to Bear Arms is a human right in this applications. The Founders of the US certainly thought so and cited Hobbes. The reasoning is fairly simple: All beings have the right to defend themselves including from the state. It's the only unversal right (according to Hobbes) people have, and so that logically must include the Right to Bear Arms.
Just because most civilizations have taken that right away from most people out of fear of them does not mean that the right did not preexist. It might mean (and iMHO does mean) that the ruling elites of most civilizations feared the will of their own people (and generally for good reason).
-Polaris
Edit: And "arms" doesn't mean firearms or even swords. It means the right to use weapons (cavemen would consider a bone club and a spear to be 'arms' by this standard).
Modifié par IanPolaris, 20 août 2011 - 02:05 .





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