[quote]Satyricon331 wrote...
I think we're at the crux of our disagreement here (although I agree it's a structural/factual thing). I think the issue here is that no analogy is going to have analogues that are similar in all respects - the analogues are different things, after all (excepting the degenerate case of analogizing something to itself). You can only say a moral analogy is useful or not for specific moral theories, and even then usually only for specific moral questions. If the morally salient features that are analogous between A and B are
sufficient in the theory to require C, then the theory says it should hold in B as well. If you say A and B are analogous under theory X for questions of C, it doesn't imply they're similar in all respects - and in particular, they might have differences salient for theory Y. In fact, X might distinguish them for questions of practicing D (although then it's a weaker analogy).[/quote]
Yes, that makes sense. I will accept that.
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But, to carry it further, and
state that all mages carry some kind of a "dormant virus" in him/her (and transmit it to his/her progeny), which activates at some point in the future (if at all) fails in being analogous to how a disease might work, because to me what appears to be more of an analogy is that mages carry a pre-disposition to attracting a virus (a demon), and thus contracting the disease. The "disease" does not exist in the mages, only a pre-disposition to contract it, when they come in contact with the pathogen (the demon). Hopefully I've made my question clear; and my position is that your disease analogy to magic fails in this regard.
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I think the sentence I bolded above is I think the issue we're having.[/quote]
I agree.
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I agree there are concrete differences between even my hypothetical disease and magic, but I disagree the concrete difference I bolded above is relevant for all moral theories, even if it is true,[/quote]
And with this, I believe our disagreement is at an end. I had not understood your stand on this earlier. Although, I'm not sure why I found it so difficult since you had brought this up earlier.
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although that's not clear to me since there's the issue of immediacy of risk.[/quote]
Which one is not clear? The truth of it is not clear? The issue I feel is we don't know what magic itself means or how it originates, other than that it is manifested by mages; so we'll be hampered by this limited understanding when drawing analogies about magic, which may require specifically this knowledge.
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If you disagree with my disagreement here then you need to show that all moral theories treat that difference as salient for all moral questions that affect them (no matter how silly the theory or question), since that's the sweeping logical position I rejected (and I only jumped in since I thought he was being stubborn about a question of objective fact).[/quote]
No. I'm not gonna embark on that endeavor. it's logically absurd for me to do so. Which means I accept your statements above as true.
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I provided a specific example of one moral theory, but I don't need that specific example - really, I don't need any specific example since all I need to do to rebut a nonexistence claim is to show a counterexample exists, not what the counterexample is. Many arguments proceed that way, after all - although I was more concrete.[/quote]
I believe at least one example would be required (at least to prove its existence), lest it turn out to be a pointless debate about one person asserting X and the other NOT X.
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Which is a long way of saying that it just isn't relevant to my position whether a predisposition to contract a disease is enough for quarantine for a particular moral theory. Really, your question amounts to trying to get me to strengthen my claim about the analogy, but I don't want to change my position and I'd rather stick to what I have.[/quote]
Nor will I ask you to since that isn't your stand. But if someone does claim that a predisposition to contract a disease is sufficient for quarantine according to some moral theory, I'd like to know how or why that is so.
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Even still though, if it helps I'll point out that disease and magic are suitable for a consequentialist analogy as well. They both have features that have consequences, and they both have agents that have action sets that affect those consequences. Those facts are salient for consequentialism, and are enough to establish that if an agent in one of the analogues should act to bring about best consequences, he or she must do so in the other, whatever the question - including questions pertaining to quarantine.[/quote]
Now, at this stage, I'll tentatively admit that it might be possible. I'm not sure how, but it just might. But I'd say that I'd not proceed along this direction, associating magic and disease, for reasons of my own.
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Now, I'd agree the analogy is not helpful since its point (that consequentialism wants you to act per its imperatives) went without saying, it'd be easier to argue its point without an analogy at all, and you can't extend the analogy to anything interesting (edit: in particular, you can't even say on the basis of the analogy that the result of bringing about best consequences for a quarantine question is the same for both). But nonetheless it suffices for the counterexample I need.[/quote]
Well, at least some (or is it many?) people here seem to be acknowledging that mages need training and they need to at least give up some of their freedom, which could be loosely thought about as a case for quarantining mages, at least for some time. They seem to be acknowledging the consequences of what might happen if such a thing is not done. So they are in a sense arguing along those lines, and without a need for an analogous setting.
But I'd think analogy is a tool and we can use it in any setting, whether from a consequentialist perspective or from any other perspective for that matter. At least I think there is no contradiction involved. I'm not saying that you suggested it shouldn't be used, however.
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By that token, come to think of it, they're suitable for a trite analogy for all (or at least nearly any) moral theory. The two have features salient for moral theories, and as such they're both suitable for moral analysis. (I say "nearly any" since perhaps some theories don't think either are of any moral significance.) In our terms above, A and B share the morally salient feature that they have morally salient features (where C is whether moral analysis is relevant to apply).[/quote]
Yes, particularly, I suppose one could argue that disease can be transmitted from mother to child and so can magic (as you'd done). But what comes of this analogy is a different matter.
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Pessimism
is realism

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I'm sure you meant it as a joke. But what does that statement really mean? Does it mean that having an optimistic outlook is somehow not compatible with reality or common sense? I'm just thinking what (if any) basis is there for believing it, even if as a joke.
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But yes, I find the debates entertaining.[/quote]
Amusing, yes. And perhaps also meant to be like spectacles. More so, I think it's done sometimes for good fun.
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I just dislike getting dragged in; there are other places online where it's more possible to have constructive engagement. Look back in this very thread - there are at least two posters who seem to be reacting (acerbically) to what I wrote (they didn't name me) but clearly didn't bother reading much anything I said.[/quote]
But do they bother you? Presumably they're more or less in the same boat of not understanding your stance as I previously didn't. They perhaps don't acknowledge the possibility of a misunderstanding, for whatever reason.
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Are you saying that an inquiry into analogies might itself be to answer moral questions?[/quote]
ALright, I'm not sure what you mean here.[/quote]
Never mind that. I was wondering if you were saying whether the usefulness of analogies is only in answering moral questions. But that apparently also was my (absurd) misunderstanding.
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My point in that quote is that my personal ethical stance doesn't affect my analysis of the logical implications another ethical theory has. I feel I can analyze the different deontologies impartially even though I'm not a deontologist, for instance. Inquiring into analogies can help to answer moral questions, if that's what you mean.[/quote]
Yes. Even I do that sometimes.
And just to be clear again about something else, since I might have spoken about my disposition too soon, without thinking:
Although I said earlier that I think of myself as a consequentialist, I may not be so at the core, because I have core beliefs about things (about rights, say). For instance, I mostly find myself debating against those who hold some particular moral stance, particularly who go for a collectivist attitude (again, for instance, who say that what's good for the majority is what's good), because this is fundamentally what I stand against. I believe in individual rights and freedoms. But I have the sense to acknowledge that this is not how it might work in reality. So instead of engaging them by asserting my own moral outlook, I adopt the different technique of using consequences within their own framework, as it were, and try to see where exactly that outlook might fail. Although I might do this against those who blindly advocate individual rights without understanding consequences, I do this rather rarely.
I do not know what the above makes me, but that is what I tend to do.
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What I was saying was you didn't think the analogy worked for your ethical theory, hence you thought it was "off-point for your theory."[/quote]
Yes, I think this is what I had done. Really, I should have paid more attention to something like this:
"Really if Ian had simply offered a more measured statement such as 'The analogy is not relevant to our disagreement,' or 'I don't view the two situations as analogous for the moral theory/ies we're discussing,' there would have been no need to jump in."EDIT: Again, fixing formatting...
Modifié par MichaelFinnegan, 04 octobre 2011 - 11:54 .