HiroVoid wrote...
esper wrote...
Emzamination wrote...
Icesong wrote...
Nizaris1 wrote...
Of course NO....
and so J.R.R Tolkien
even though everything is obvious
What it comes down to is, just because you can draw a parallel and even if they may work perfectly, that doesn't mean it's what the author intended.
So much this.
Of course that brings up one of the big questions in the narrative discussion.
What is most important:
Author intent or the recipients perception of the work?
I usually go with the recipients perception though I always think knowing the author's intent is good as well. It's also why I don't ever give any real mind to 'word of god' statements.
I tend to agree with you, but then you get certain recipients's perception of some naratives, where you just go...
How the **** did you get that fromt the story.
Of course some naratives have such an obvious authorital intent that
not reading it into the text distract from the meaning. Certain satires for example gets better when you know it is a satire and not that which is satire over.
Still on general principle I agree with you. (It is still one of the most funny thing to discuss with my proffessors.)
And here we have some of the good argument for the author (Hope the quote doesn't mess up):
Swagger7 wrote...
I
come down heaqvily on the side of author intent. While a recipient can
get their own value out of a work, this interpretation is only valid
from their perspective, and they have no objective say regarding the
work itself. "Death of the Author"
is a concept literary critics came up with so they wouldn't get egg on
their face every time they were wrong, which was often. Can you tell
that I don't have much love for literary critics?
There is a difference between critic and value. And a lot of critiques are indeed not good. Since most recipients of a narrative are consuming the narratives as an individual (even if your watch in a group your enjoyment of it is your own) the individual interpretation is the most important. However, I will still say for it to be valid you need concrete proof. Such as saying that and that in the narrative supports my understanding, and that and this shows the weakness in it.
But even if I am on perception side, mostly. I do not completely miss Word of God. If Word of God says that the work is meant to be an analouge over sexual frustration for example then it is an analoge over sexual frustration. However, if Word of God is so inflexible I do reserve the right to insist that the author failed to make their intent come across.
And I don't think you can add and intent that is not there contextually. If you read some old Knights Romances (from 'the middle age', must not be confused with romantic littarature. they were not), chance that they are athetish propaganda simply do not exist, because the idea of atheism was not really viable at the time,
Modifié par esper, 04 janvier 2013 - 08:56 .