If a couple is together for years but decide to wait to have a sexual encounter until marriage because of religious reasons, is their relationship only "friendship" until their genitals meet?
of course not, assuming they both know the intention of the relationship, hence "at an unspecified date in the future".
If a married couple are together for twenty years, and one spouse ends up in a car accident that paralyzes them and leaves them unable to have physical sexual congress, are they no longer in a romantic relationship? Are they now just friends?
No, and in that case the sexual attraction probably didn't simply cease to exist just because it is now more difficult to perform acts of sexual intimacy (assuming the will is still there at all for both partners)
I've been married for ten years. I've been friends with my best friend/best man for twenty. If my wife were suddenly unable to have physical sex with me because of a medical condition, I can guarantee that the two relationships would be in absolutely no way comparable.
probably not, then again you are describing a relationship where neither of you are asexuals. It isn't really analogous. Asexuality is a medical condition resulting in the lack of a sex drive, seperate from abstention from sexual activity either due to social or even physical reasons (religion, distance, physical disability etc).
If two people were able to create a personal, emotional and societal bond that is similar to that, then what they do or don't do with their genitals is really inconsequential. A lot of people just happen to forge that bond because of society's views towards fecundity. But much in the same way a mind-blowing one night stand doesn't make a relationship, a relationship doesn't necessarily need to be defined by sex.
The intended functions of the genitals don't exclusively define human (or in this case alien) sexuality. It is also encompasses neurochemical processes and fixed action patterns (instincts). If those processes truly aren't physically present in an individual, than neither should the sexual behaviors based upon them (i.e. "cuddling" as an example).
Romantic relations are defined by sex or sexual activity. If there is none, there ceases to be a distinction with platonic relationships, and therefore the two terms are redundant.
IGNORANCE ALERT. It's not about chemical disabilities.
It doesn't really matter how you define an asexual relationship, or what you think an asexual relationship entails. You don't get to define other people's sexuality for them. Your 'doubts' are irrelevant, in light of the fact that many Asexual people have expressed their enjoyment of cuddling/physical contact.
You should really do some actual research (listen to what asexual people tell you, information via rectal pull doesn't count) before proclaiming yourself an expert on asexual romance.
Pardon me for asking scientific questions, but don't call me "ignorant" simply because you can't elucidate on them. I'm not attempting to define anyone's sexuality, I'm simply using the empirical physical definition of asexual as the physical lack of sexual attraction, which is distinct from celibacy or abstention, both of which are chosen behavioral traits.
If someone enjoys cuddling/ physical contact as a result of oxytocin release, than they are not asexual, they are simply celibate. I do plenty of research, and it doesn't involve listening to random people who have no scientific knowledge and are in actuality the ones performing "rectal pull".
I'm not at all an expert on asexual "romance". The concept seems an oxymoron to me based on my understanding of human sexuality and sociology, that's why I'm asking the questions.