of course not, assuming they both know the intention of the relationship, hence "at an unspecified date in the future".
No, and in that case the sexual attraction probably didn't simply cease to exist just because it is now more difficult to perform acts of sexual intimacy (assuming the will is still there at all for both partners)
probably not, then again you are describing a relationship where neither of you are asexuals. It isn't really analogous. Asexuality is a medical condition resulting in the lack of a sex drive, seperate from abstention from sexual activity either due to social or even physical reasons (religion, distance, physical disability etc).
The intended functions of the genitals don't exclusively define human (or in this case alien) sexuality. It is also encompasses neurochemical processes and fixed action patterns (instincts). If those processes truly aren't physically present in an individual, than neither should the sexual behaviors based upon them (i.e. "cuddling" as an example).
Romantic relations are defined by sex or sexual activity. If there is none, there ceases to be a distinction with platonic relationships, and therefore the two terms are redundant.
Pardon me for asking scientific questions, but don't call me "ignorant" simply because you can't elucidate on them. I'm not attempting to define anyone's sexuality, I'm simply using the empirical physical definition of asexual as the physical lack of sexual attraction, which is distinct from celibacy or abstention, both of which are chosen behavioral traits.
If someone enjoys cuddling/ physical contact as a result of oxytocin release, than they are not asexual, they are simply celibate. I do plenty of research, and it doesn't involve listening to random people who have no scientific knowledge and are in actuality the ones performing "rectal pull".
I'm not at all an expert on asexual "romance". The concept seems an oxymoron to me based on my understanding of human sexuality and sociology, that's why I'm asking the questions.