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Am i missing something here?


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3 réponses à ce sujet

#1
htisscrimbliv

htisscrimbliv
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Ok, so one of the sigils u get gives you a -50% attack but a 200% flanking damage bonus. But my question is, isnt dividing something in half then multiplying by 2 give u the same number you start with? Or are the #s calculated differently and i just suck at math. I did fail in 10th grade math.

#2
Bigdawg13

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I think you are correct if your base attack and flank are 0%.  But imagine if you have 50% attack.  Now instead the end result is 200% instead of 50% (assuming flanking).

 

final_damage = (base_damage * rand(0.95 to 1.05) - armor * (1 - armor_penetration))
* (ability_multiplier)
* (1 + critical_damage_bonus + flanking_bonus)
* (1 + attack_bonus + damage_multiplier + type_bonus)
* (1 - magic_resistance)


#3
PapaCharlie9

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Starting Flank% is +25, so +200 really means 225 or better. And as BD noted, all factors are (1 + X), so (1 + 2.25) is 3.25. If your attack is worst case 0, -50% ends up being:

 

(1 - .5)(1 + 2.25) = 1.125

 

BTW, I think the final_damage formula is incomplete. It's probably adjusted as follows:

 

adjusted_damage = max(1, final_damage)

 

Negative damage is most likely impossible.



#4
htisscrimbliv

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So if u already have a base attack of 0, does that mean there would be no down side to using this?